Quality Assurance

(1)
University of Miami Sylvester Cancer Center, Miami, Florida, USA
 

8.1 QA Guidance and Protocols (Questions)

Quiz-1 (Level 2)

1.
Which of the following associations set minimum standards of QA required for hospitals seeking accreditations?
A.
American College of Radiology (ACR)
 
B.
American Association of Medical Physics (AAPM)
 
C.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
 
D.
Joint Commission for Accreditation of Health Care Organization (JCAHO)
 
 
2.
The Intersociety Council for Radiation Oncology (ISCRO) specifies in the blue book that:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
At least one dosimetrist must cover a center for up to 300 patients treated annually.
 
II.
At least one physicist must cover a center for up to 400 patients treated annually.
 
III.
At least one radiation oncologist must cover a center for up to 200–250 patients treated annually.
 
IV.
Dosimetrists can perform physics work as long as a physicist established the procedures, directs the activities, and reviews the results.
 
 
3.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A.
Dosimetrists can perform calibration of radiation generators or sources.
 
B.
Calibration of radiation generators or sources is the exclusive responsibility of the medical physicist.
 
C.
The radiation oncologist undoubtedly has the overall responsibility for the conduct of the entire treatment process.
 
D.
A dual-energy linear accelerator can provide all the beams necessary for modern radiotherapy.
 
 
4.
What is the primary physicist’s role when radiotherapy equipment is purchased?
A.
Write technical specifications.
 
B.
Share responsibilities between the radiation oncologist and administrator.
 
C.
Decide the budget.
 
D.
Select the location to be installed.
 
 
5.
A radiotherapy equipment acceptance test is done to:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Demonstrate that the product meets the specifications of the manufacturer
 
II.
Prove that the product arrives on specified date and time at the hospital or institution
 
III.
Satisfies the legal requirements of equipment safety
 
IV.
Train the physicist on the new equipment or product
 
 
6.
A qualified medical physicist must:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Have a MS or PhD degree in physics, medical physics, or a closely related field.
 
II.
Have a minimum of a high school diploma.
 
III.
Have a certification in radiation oncology physics by the American Board of Radiology, the American board of Medical Physics, or another appropriate certifying body.
 
IV.
Have a certification by the American Association of Medical Dosimetrists
 
 
7.
Which of the following are responsibilities of the physicist?
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Acceptance testing of new equipment
 
II.
Commissioning of new equipment
 
III.
Calibration of equipment
 
IV.
Installation of new equipment
 
 
8.
Which of the following parameters are considered during the radiation survey performed by the physicist after installation of new equipment?
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Dose rate output
 
II.
Machine on time
 
III.
Use factor
 
IV.
Occupancy factor
 
 
9.
Which of the following is NOT included on a formal radiation protection survey after completion of new equipment installation?
A.
Measurement of head leakage and area survey
 
B.
Tests of interlocks and warning lights
 
C.
Emergency switches
 
D.
Radiation dose received by installation workers
 
 
10.
Which of the following is the comprehensive guidance for radiation oncology QA from the AAPM?
A.
TG-40
 
B.
TG-43
 
C.
TG-51
 
D.
TG-21
 
 
11.
Since new technologies such as IMRT were developed in recent decades, AAPM generated another QA guideline for linear accelerators as an important amendment to meet the new needs. Which of the following is that report of AAPM?
A.
TG-135
 
B.
TG-142
 
C.
TG-144
 
D.
TG-101
 
 
12.
What is the protocol of AAPM for absolute dosimetry QA for high-energy photon and electron beams after year 1999?
A.
TG-40
 
B.
TG-43
 
C.
TG-51
 
D.
TG-21
 
 
13.
What is the difference between acceptance testing and commissioning of equipment?
A.
They are essentially the same.
 
B.
They are totally irrelevant.
 
C.
Acceptance test runs a small portion of dataset of commissioning.
 
D.
Commissioning runs a small portion of dataset of acceptance test.
 
 

8.2 Requirements and Tolerance for QA Procedures (Questions)

Quiz-1 (Level 2)

1.
The approximately overall uncertainty to a point when using wedges in a treatment field is:
A.
1.6 %
 
B.
2.0 %
 
C.
3.0 %
 
D.
5.5 %
 
 
2.
Which of the following is NOT a method used to check jaw symmetry?
A.
Graph paper
 
B.
Film
 
C.
Machinist’s dial indicator
 
D.
Front pointer
 
 
3.
Which of the following gantry angles should be used when checking light versus x-ray field alignment for acceptance testing of a linac?
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
0° gantry angle
 
II.
90° gantry angle
 
III.
180° gantry angle
 
IV.
270° gantry angle
 
 
4.
According to the AAPM guidelines, the alignment between the light field and the x-ray field should be:
A.
2 mm diameter circle
 
B.
±2 mm or 1 % on a side
 
C.
±1 mm or 1 % on a side
 
D.
±5 mm or 1 % on a side
 
 
5.
Which of the following QA tests are done using films that show star patterns with a dark central region?
A.
II, III, and IV only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Field symmetry
 
II.
Collimator rotation
 
III.
Table rotation
 
IV.
Gantry rotation
 
 
6.
The split-field test is used to detect:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Focal spot displacement
 
II.
Asymmetry of collimator jaws
 
III.
Displacement in the collimator or gantry rotation axis
 
IV.
Light field with x-ray field alignment
 
 
7.
The most practical method of specifying clinical beam energy is:
A.
Depth-dose distribution
 
B.
Sandwiched film between buildup sheets
 
C.
Machinist’s dial indicator
 
D.
Clarkson’s method
 
 
8.
Which of the following should be considered in order to determine clinical beam energy?
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Ion chamber diameter should be larger than 3 mm diameter.
 
II.
Ion chamber diameter should be smaller than 3 mm diameter.
 
III.
Absolute values of the percent depth dose should be used for comparing depth-dose distribution with published data.
 
IV.
Depth-dose ratios for depths beyond the depth of Dmax should be used for comparing depth-dose distribution with published data.
 
 
9.
The depth-dose distribution for photon clinical beam energy is specified at:
A.
10 × 10 cm field size, 100 cm SAD, 10 cm depth
 
B.
40 × 40 cm field size, 100 cm SSD, 10 cm depth
 
C.
10 × 10 cm field size, 100 cm SSD, 10 cm depth
 
D.
10 × 10 cm field size, 100 cm SAD, Dmax
 
 
10.
Which is the difference in the depth-dose ratio or ionization ration acceptance from the published values data when performing photon beam energy measurement?
A.
±1 %
 
B.
±2 %
 
C.
±3 %
 
D.
±4 %
 
 
11.
For acceptance testing, photon beam flatness should be checked for which of the following situations?
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
For a 10 × 10 field size at least at 10 cm and Dmax depth
 
II.
For the maximum field size at least at 10 cm and Dmax depth
 
III.
For a 10 × 10 field size at a depth of 10 cm
 
IV.
Using diagonal scans
 
 
12.
Which of the following methods are used for electron beam energy measurements?
A.
Depth-dose or depth ionization curve for a broad beam
 
B.
Depth-dose distribution measured at depth 10 cm using a 10 × 10 cm field size at 100 SSD
 
C.
Using a radiographic film to measure the distribution of activity
 
D.
Depth-dose curve in a water phantom for a broad beam at Dmax
 
 
13.
Match the following QA test with the correct tolerance:
A.
Optical distance indicator
 
B.
Gantry and collimator angles
 
C.
Sag of couch
 
D.
Jaw symmetry
 
E.
Light beam with x-ray beam
 
F.
Collimator rotation
 
G.
Beam flatness and symmetry
 
I.
±1 mm from baseline
 
II.
 
III.
1 mm diameter circle
 
IV.
2 mm
 
V.
±1 % change from baseline
 
VI.
2 mm from baseline
 
VII.
2 mm or 1 % on a side
 
 
14.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A.
Short-lived interstitial sources in the form of seeds, wires, or seed-loaded ribbons can be tested by visual inspection behind a leaded glass window.
 
B.
A standard seed of a different isotope should be used to calibrate the well ionization chamber.
 
C.
For a batch of a large number of sources, a randomly selected sample of three or four ribbons of a given strength should be check for calibration.
 
D.
125I seeds are difficult to calibrate because of the low energy of the emitted photons.
 
 
15.
Acceptance procedures for a HDR remote afterloading unit should include:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Operational testing of the afterloader unit
 
II.
Radiation safety check of the facility
 
III.
Checking of source calibration and transport
 
IV.
Checking of treatment planning software
 
 
16.
A linear accelerator is ready to be used for patient treatments:
A.
After acceptance testing is done, reviewed, and approved
 
B.
After commissioning is done, reviewed, and approved
 
C.
After QA is done, reviewed, and approved
 
D.
After the vendor installation is completed
 
 
17.
Linear accelerator commissioning is completed:
A.
After calibration of all modalities and energies according to current protocols
 
B.
After a transverse, longitudinal, and diagonal dose profiles for all modalities and energies at Dmax for electrons and selected depths for photons are acquired
 
C.
After the beam data has been input into the treatment planning computer and the computer generated dose distributions have been checked
 
D.
After all output factors as a function of field size for all photon energies and all electrons as a function of cones and standard insets are complete
 
 
18.
Acceptance testing and commissioning of the treatment planning computer system include:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Checking the accuracy and linearity of input digitizers, output plotters, and printers
 
II.
Checking the accuracy of dose distributions for a selected set of treatment conditions against measured distributions or manual calculations
 
III.
Checking the algorithm accuracy, precision, limitations, and special features
 
IV.
Checking the treatment planning computer system’s company records
 
 
19.
Which of the following QA tests must be done daily on a linear accelerator?
A.
Emergency off switches check
 
B.
Door interlock check
 
C.
Light/radiation field coincidence check
 
D.
Tabletop sag check
 
 
20.
Which of the following QA test must be done daily on a simulator?
A.
Fluoroscopic image quality
 
B.
Field size indicator
 
C.
Distance indicator (ODI)
 
D.
Exposure rate
 
 
21.
The NRC requires full calibration of a teletherapy unit:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Before the first medical use of the unit and at intervals not exceeding 1 year
 
II.
Whenever spot-check measurements differ by more than 5 % from the output at the last full calibration
 
III.
Following replacement of the source or relocation of the unit
 
IV.
Following repairs that could affect the source exposure assembly
 
 
22.
Some calibration checks of a teletherapy units required by NRC include:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Output being within ±3 %
 
II.
On-off error
 
III.
Uniformity of radiation field and its dependence on the orientation of the radiation field
 
IV.
Timer constancy and linearity over the range of use
 
 
23.
As per ICRP recommendations, simulator annual QA tube leakage must not exceed:
A.
1 R/h at 1 m
 
B.
0.1 R/min at 1 m
 
C.
0.1 R/h at 1 m
 
D.
1 R/h at 10 m
 
 
24.
When performing simulator annual QA tube leakage tests:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Measurement of tube leakages must be done using highest kVp setting.
 
II.
Measurement of tube leakages should be done using any combination of kVp and mA.
 
III.
Measurement of tube leakages must be done using the highest mA.
 
IV.
Measurement of tube leakage should be done with the machine in the off position.
 
 
25.
Simulator kVp accuracy must be:
A.
Within 10 kVp from selected at control panel
 
B.
Within 5 kVp from selected at control panel
 
C.
Within 3 kVp from selected at control panel
 
D.
Within 15 kVp from selected at control panel
 
 
26.
Simulator mA linearity is done:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
To measure the mA setting versus the exposure rate proportionality
 
II.
To measure the exposure at different mA settings
 
III.
To measure exposure as a function of mA setting
 
IV.
To measure exposure as a function of tube current and time setting
 
 
27.
Ionization chamber and electrometer systems must be sent to an ADCL for calibration at intervals not exceeding:
A.
Every six months
 
B.
One year
 
C.
Two years
 
D.
Five years
 
 
28.
Instruments used to measure relative dose or dose distribution (diodes, TLD, films) should be calibrated by an ADCL every:
A.
Six months
 
B.
One year
 
C.
Two years
 
D.
No required calibration
 
 
29.
Calibration of survey meters must be done at intervals not exceeding:
A.
Every six months
 
B.
One year
 
C.
Two years
 
D.
Five years
 
 
30.
Closed-circuit television and audio monitoring systems:
A.
I, II, and III only
 
B.
I and III only
 
C.
II and IV only
 
D.
IV only
 
E.
All are correct
 
I.
Are required in treatment rooms
 
II.
Should be checked daily for proper operation
 
III.
Should be turned on for all treatments
 
IV.
Are not necessary if any tracking system (calypso, respiratory gating, etc.) is used
 
 
31.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A.
Port films must be approved by the physician before the second treatment fraction.
 
B.
MLC inter-leaf leakage should be <3 %.
 
C.
If only one 0.5 cm leaf is retracted when it is supposed to be extended, the treatment can be done because the radiation through 0.5 cm is minimal.
 
D.
The MLC pattern must be checked by the therapist for each fraction.
 
 
Jun 12, 2017 | Posted by in GENERAL RADIOLOGY | Comments Off on Quality Assurance

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