(1)
University of Miami Sylvester Cancer Center, Miami, Florida, USA
1.1 Atomic and Nuclear Structure (Questions)
Quiz-1 (Level 1)
1.
One atomic mass unit is equal to:
A.
1.66 × 10−27 kg
B.
1.862 MeV
C.
1.602 × 10−19 J
D.
0.511 MeV/c2
2.
What is the conversion factor from amu to MeV/c2?
A.
939
B.
0.511
C.
938
D.
931
3.
What is the number of charge of a proton?
A.
+1
B.
−1
C.
0
D.
0.511
4.
The nucleus of an atom is composed of
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Electrons
II.
Protons
III.
Neutrons
IV.
Positron
5.
What is the force that binds electrons to the atom?
A.
Strong force
B.
Electromagnetic force
C.
Gravitational force
D.
Weak force
6.
The energy needed to remove an electron from the shell is called:
A.
The balance electrons
B.
The binding energy
C.
Transitions
D.
Energy levels
7.
Electron binding energy increases:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and III and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
As the electron orbits get farther from the nucleus
II.
In the K shell compared with N shell
III.
And is proportional to Z 2
IV.
With increasing charge of the nucleus
8.
The chemical properties of an atom are determined by:
A.
Valence electrons
B.
Shielding electrons
C.
Effective nuclear charge
D.
Nuclear diameter
9.
The maximum number of electrons that can occupy a specific energy level is determined using the formula:
A.
E klphoton = E k − E l
B.
E = mc2
C.
2n 2
D.
T 1/2 = Ln2/λ
10.
What is the maximum number of electrons that can hold in L shell?
A.
12
B.
2
C.
18
D.
8
11.
The atoms are designated by atomic symbols; the symbol “A” represents:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
III and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Atomic number
II.
Number of electrons
III.
Mass number
IV.
Number of protons and neutrons
12.
In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equals to:
A.
Atomic number
B.
Number of photons
C.
Symbol “A”
D.
Number of nucleons
13.
The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to:
A.
A only
B.
A + Z
C.
Z only
D.
A − Z
14.
In chronological order, identify the number of electron, number of protons, number of neutrons, its mass number, atomic number, and number of nucleons in the following element [gold (79197Au)]:
A.
79, 79, 118, 197, 79, and 197
B.
118, 79, 197, 118, 79, and 197
C.
79, 79, 197, 118, 79, and 118
D.
197, 79, 118, 197, 79, and 118
15.
The rest mass of an electron (MeV/c2) is equal to:
A.
938
B.
0.511
C.
939
D.
No rest mass
16.
A transition is said to have taken placed on an atom when:
A.
An electron is removed from an atom
B.
All electrons are in the lowest allowable energy levels
C.
An electron moves from its original shell to another
D.
Electrons are attracted by the nucleus
17.
What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in M shell?
A.
2
B.
18
C.
12
D.
32
18.
An atom which is ionized and loses an electron is called a/an:
A.
Negative ion
B.
Electrically neutral
C.
Positive ion
D.
Characteristic radiation
19.
Atoms who have nuclei with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called:
A.
Isomers
B.
Isobars
C.
Isotones
D.
Isotopes
20.
Which of the following is an isotone?
A.
B.
C.
612 C, 614 C
D.
1737 C, 1939 P
Quiz-2 (Level 2)
1.
What is the maximum number of electrons the 2p subshell can hold?
A.
2
B.
6
C.
8
D.
18
2–9.
Match the following elements with its corresponding classification (answers may be used more than once):
A.
Isotopes
B.
Isotones
C.
Isobars
D.
Isomers
2.
Same number of protons, but different number of neutrons
3.
Same number of neutrons, but different number of protons
4.
Same number of nucleons, but different number of protons
5.
Same number of protons and neutrons, but different nuclear energy state
6.
Same Z number, but different A number
7.
Different A number, different Z number, but same number of neutrons
8.
Same A number, but different Z number
9.
Same A and Z, but different nuclear energy state
10.
A breakup of an unstable nucleus into two more stable nuclei of comparable mass with the release of large amount of energy in the form of heat and radiation is called:
A.
Fusion
B.
Fission
C.
Internal conversion
D.
Gamma emission
11.
The relationship between wavelength, frequency, and velocity for photons is given by the formula:
A.
E = hν
B.
E = hc/λ
C.
c = ν λ
D.
A = −λN
12.
The most stable atoms are:
A.
Atoms with even number of protons, odd number of neutrons
B.
Atoms with odd number of protons, even number of neutrons
C.
Atoms with even number of protons, even number of neutrons
D.
Atoms with odd number of protons, odd number of neutrons
13.
Avogadro’s number (N A) refers to:
A.
The ratio of the number of constituent particles in a sample to the amount of substance
B.
The smaller quantity of an element
C.
The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom
D.
The number of electrons per unit cubic distance
14.
The accepted value of Avogadro’s number (N A) is:
A.
3 × 108
B.
1.602 × 10−19
C.
1.66 × 10−27
D.
6.0228 × 1023
15.
Avogadro’s number (N A) can be used to calculate:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
III and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Number of atoms per gram
II.
Number of grams per atom
III.
Number of electrons per gram
IV.
Amount of energy
16.
Calculate the number of atoms/g of Cobalt if its atomic weight (A w) is 58.93 g/mol:
A.
3.549 × 1025
B.
1.0220 × 1022
C.
1.220 × 1023
D.
9.7845 × 1023
17.
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate grams/atom of a material?
A.
N A/A w
B.
N A × A w
C.
A w/N A
D.
N A × Z/A w
18.
According to the atomic mass unit, the mass of a neutron is:
A.
No mass
B.
1.00727 amu
C.
0.000548 amu
D.
1.00866 amu
19.
The mass defect is defined as:
A.
A defect in the number of protons in the nucleus
B.
Every gram atomic weight of a substance contains the same number of atoms
C.
The different in mass between an atom and the sum of the masses of its constituent particles
D.
The propagation of energy through space or a material medium
20.
Which of the following is/are properties of an electron?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
III and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
It can undergo collision interactions.
II.
It is a fundamental particle.
III.
It possesses mass, charge, and spin.
IV.
It has a magnetic field.
21.
The smallest component of an element having the chemical properties of the element is:
A.
Element
B.
Atom
C.
Nucleus
D.
Quarks
22.
The structure or model of an atom was discovered by:
A.
Wilhelm Roentgen
B.
Niels Bohr
C.
Henri Becquerel
D.
Pierre Curie
23.
Which of the following is/are characteristics of ions?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
III and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
They are charged atoms.
II.
The number of electrons is different than the number of protons.
III.
Ions are named cation if the number of electrons is less than the number of protons.
IV.
Ions are named anion if the number of electrons exceeds the number of protons.
24.
Which of the following bond occurs between two nonmetallic atoms?
A.
Ionic bond
B.
Van der Waals bond
C.
Covalent bond
D.
Metallic bond
25.
Which of the following is true about 137Cs and 137mBa?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
III and IV only
D.
II only
E.
All are correct
I.
They belong to the same element.
II.
They possess the same mass number.
III.
They are considered isotopes.
IV.
They possess the same atomic number.
Quiz-3 (Level 3)
1.
Suppose the rest mass of electron is m 0 and the speed is v = 0.6c; its kinetic energy is:
A.
m 0 v 2/2
B.
Smaller than m 0 v 2/2
C.
Larger than m 0 v 2/2
D.
0.511 MeV/c2
2.
A meson is composed of
A.
A quark and an antiquark of the same flavor
B.
A quark and an antiquark of different flavor
C.
2 quarks or 2 antiquarks of different flavor
D.
2 quarks or 2 antiquarks of same flavor
3.
Neutrinos or antineutrinos are generated in standard beta decays. The energy spectrum of beta particles is consecutive, suggesting neutrinos or antineutrinos may carry rather large energy. However, in dosimetry there is never a dose calculation related to neutrinos; the reason is
A.
It is too hard to calculate because neutrinos have different energy
B.
The dose related to neutrinos is negligible thus it is never counted
C.
Neutrinos never interact with tissue by Compton scattering or any other interactions
D.
Actually we should calculate the dose, but unfortunately little research has been done
4.
A radiation oncology clinic plans to use a muon beam (v = 0.999c) pipe from a high-energy (GeV) synchrotron located 1 km away. The lifetime for muons is about 2 μs. This plan sounds impossible, right?
A.
Right. At the speed of light, it takes muons about 3 μs to travel through the 1 km pipe so all muons will decay to electrons and antineutrino before treatment. Therefore, this plan is impossible
B.
Still possible. Because after 3 μs, which is 1.5 lifetime, only some muons decay. This can be calculated by simple math. The plan is still possible since the remaining muons can be used.
C.
Right. A muon decays into an electron and an antineutrino with random directions; thus, the beam quality is too bad to be used, even though some muons remain from decay.
D.
The lifetime for muons at 0.999c is much longer than 2 μs, so there is no decay and nothing to be worried about. The plan is possible.
5.
Does a neutron have an antiparticle?
A.
The term antiparticle means identical mass but opposite charge, like an electron and a positron. A neutron has no charge; thus a neutron does not have an antiparticle.
B.
Yes, a neutron has an antiparticle, which is an antineutron, a different particle from a neutron.
C.
Yes, however, a neutron’s antiparticle is exactly itself.
D.
A neutron is not an elementary particle; thus, the concept of an antiparticle does not apply to a neutron.
6.
How many kind(s) of neutrino(s) exist in nature?
A.
6
B.
3
C.
1
D.
2
7.
Electric force and magnetic force are actually the same type of interaction, so-called electromagnetic interaction. Which physicist unified those two interactions?
A.
Einstein, with the theory of special relativity
B.
Maxwell, with Maxwell equation group
C.
Hertz, with the discovery of electromagnetic wave
D.
Faraday, with his discovery of electromagnetic induction
8.
There are four types of fields discovered in nature. Physicists tried to unify them by symmetry.
A.
I and II
B.
I, II, and III
C.
II only
D.
II and III
I.
Photons change energies by blue shift or red shift when they travel in gravitational field; thus gravity is unified to electromagnetic field.
II.
The weak field and the electromagnetic field are the same under electroweak interaction theory.
III.
The Grand Unified Theory actually cannot unify gravitational field.
9.
The fuel in a nuclear plant and the material to make a atomic bomb are similar; thus,
A.
They can be mutually exchanged.
B.
Fuel in a nuclear plant can be used to produce an atomic bomb, but not vice versa.
C.
Material to make an atomic bomb can be used in a nuclear plant, but not vice versa.
D.
They cannot be exchanged because of the different abundance of atoms to produce fission.
10.
Electromagnetic interaction occurs by exchanging photons; nucleons interact to each other by exchanging:
A.
Quarks
B.
Mesons
C.
Colors
D.
W± or neutral vector bosons
11.
In the standard model, a quark may have the following interactions:
A.
Strong, electromagnetic, and weak
B.
Strong and electromagnetic
C.
Strong and weak
D.
Strong only
1.2 Radioactivity (Questions)
Quiz-1 (Level 1)
1.
Radioactivity was first discovered by
A.
Wilhelm Roentgen
B.
Marie Curie
C.
Henri Becquerel
D.
Pierre Curie
2.
Radioactivity is defined as
A.
An emission of radiation from unstable nuclei of element in the form of particles, electromagnetic radiation, or both
B.
Radiation in which a particle carries energy is capable of removing electrons from an atom, thus producing free radicals
C.
The rate of energy loss per unit path length
D.
The rate of decay of a radioactive material
3.
Which of the following is true?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
II and IV only
C.
I and II only
D.
All are true
I.
The activity per unit mass of a radionuclide is termed the half-life.
II.
The number of atoms disintegrating per unit time is proportional to the number of radioactive atoms.
III.
The time required for either the activity or the number of radioactive atoms to decay to half the initial value is termed specific activity.
IV.
The average life or the mean life is the average lifetime for the decay of radioactive atoms.
4-13.
Match the formula with its corresponding name (answer may be more than one).
A.
Decay constant
B.
Activity
C.
Half-life
D.
Mean life
E.
Number of atoms with time
F.
Specific activity
G.
Number of atoms per gram
4.
τ = 1.44 T 1/2
5.
N = N 0 e −λt
6.
A = −λN
7.
T 1/2 = 0.693/λ
8.
τ = 1/λ
9.
T 1/2 = ln2/λ
10.
A = A 0 e −λτ /A n = A 0 exp (−0.693 × t/T 1/2)
11.
SA = λ (N A/A W)
12.
Number of atoms/g = N A/A w
13.
λ = 0.693/T 1/2
14.
Transient equilibrium is achieved when:
A.
Half-life of daughter is much longer than half-life of parent
B.
Half-life of parent is much longer than half-life of daughter
C.
The parent and daughter decay at their own respective half-lives
D.
Half-life of parent is not much longer than half-life of daughter
Quiz-2 (Level 2)
1.
Match the following graphs with its radioactive equilibrium types:
A.
Secular equilibrium
B.
Transient equilibrium
C.
No equilibrium
Fig. 1.2.1
2.
Which of the following are modes of radioactive decay?
A.
I only
B.
II and III only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
II and IV only
E.
All answers are correct
I.
Alpha particle decay
II.
Beta particle decay
III.
Electron capture
IV.
Internal conversion
3.
Match the following term with its corresponding symbol:
A.
Alpha particle
B.
Beta particle
C.
Negatron
D.
Positron
E.
Gamma ray
I.
γ
II.
β−
III.
β
IV.
α
V.
β+
4.
Which of the following is a general reaction for α-particle decay process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Match the following reaction with its corresponding characteristics:
A.
Internal conversion
B.
Electron capture
C.
Beta plus (positron) emission (β+)
D.
Alpha particle (α)
E.
Beta minus (negatron) emission (β−)
I.
Z ≥ 82, same nuclear structure of an 24He, atomic number (Z) decrease by 2, atomic mass (A) decrease by 4, particle composed of two protons and two neutrons
II.
Excessive number of neutrons; high neutron to proton (n/p) ratio; reduced n/p ratio by converting a neutron into a proton, negatron, and antineutrino; atomic number (Z) increases by 1, but atomic mass (A) remains the same
III.
Deficit of neutrons, low neutron to proton (n/p) ratio, increase n/p ratio by converting a proton into a neutron and a positron; atomic number (Z) decreases by 1 but atomic mass (A) remains the same; consists of a continuous energy distribution
IV.
Deficit of neutrons, low neutron to proton (n/p) ratio, increase n/p ratio by capturing one of the orbital electrons by the nucleus transforming a proton into a neutron; often called K capture; give rise to characteristic X-ray with emission of Auger electrons
V.
Excess nuclear energy from the nucleus is passed on to one orbital electrons, which is then ejected from the atom and creates a vacancy which gives rise to characteristic X-ray with emission of Auger electrons; no change in atomic number
6.
What is the decay constant of Ir-192 if its half-life is known to be 74.2 days?
I.
3.8915 × 10−5/h
II.
0.000038915/h
III.
9.3396 × 10−3/day
IV.
0.0093396/day
A.
I and III only
B.
II and IV only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
All are correct
7.
The decay constant of Co-60 is higher than the decay constant of Cs-137.
A.
True
B.
False
8.
After 6 half-lives, the initial activity of a radionuclide is decreased to:
A.
I only
B.
I and IV only
C.
II and III only
D.
All are correct
I.
6.5
II.
0.0156
III.
0.56
IV.
2.4494
9.
How many half-lives are needed for a radionuclide having an activity of 200 mCi to decay to 3.125 mCi?
A.
6 T 1/2
B.
4 T 1/2
C.
3 T 1/2
D.
7 T 1/2
10.
The initial activity of Au-198 is 15 mCi; what is the activity in 20 days if its half-value layer is 2.5?
A.
0.2556 mCi
B.
0.09036 mCi
C.
2.8931 mCi
D.
2.490 mCi
11.
The physicist in your department needs to use I-125 with an activity of 17.8095 mCi on November 10 for an implant, but he/she needs to place the order 10 days before (November 1). What is the activity of I-125 at the time of shipping (November 1)?
A.
20 mCi
B.
0.0116 mCi
C.
59.6 mCi
D.
25 mCi
12.
When will the activity of 10 mCi of Rn-222 (T 1/2 = 3.83 days and decay constant λ = 1.8094 × 10−1/day) equal the activity of 5 mCi of Au-198 (T 1/2 = 2.7 days and a decay constant λ = 2.567 × 10−1 per day)
A.
915 days
B.
9.15 years
C.
9.15 days
D.
91.5 days
13.
What is the mean life of Co-60 in years if its photon energy is 1.25 MeV?
A.
1.80
B.
7.57
C.
3.64
D.
5.62
14.
The (α, n) reaction is:
A.
A proton being captured by the nucleus with the emission of a γ-ray
B.
A bombardment of a nucleus by an α-particle with the subsequent emission of a neutron
C.
A bombardment of a nucleus by a proton with the subsequent emission of an α-particle
D.
A bombardment of a nucleus by a proton with the subsequent emission of deuteron
15.
Which of the following statements are true?
A.
I only
B.
I and III only
C.
I and IV only
D.
All are correct
I.
λ b is the fraction of the isotope removed biologically per unit time.
II.
λ eff is the fraction eliminated per unit time by biological and physiological process.
III.
λ p is the fraction that decays physically per unit time.
IV.
1/λ eff = 1/λ p + 1/λ b is the formula used to find the fraction removal per unit time.
16.
Which of the following statement(s) is true?
A.
Physical half-life is longer than biological half-life.
B.
Biological half-life is longer than physical half-life.
C.
Effective half-life is shorter than the physical and biological half-life.
D.
Effective half-life is longer than the physical and biological half-life.
17.
Calculate the effective half-life of a radionuclide if the physical half-life is 7 h and the biological half-life is 14 h.
A.
15 h
B.
3.26 h
C.
16 h
D.
4.66 h
18.
Which of the followings formulas are used to calculate effective half-life?
I.
1/λ eff = 1/λ p + 1/λ b
II.
T a = 1.44 × T 1/2
III.
T eff = T p × T b/T p + T b
IV.
A 0 = A n e −λτ
A.
I only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
All are correct
19.
After how long will Ir-192 decay to 99.5 % of its original activity?
A.
5.37 days
B.
0.537 days
C.
53.7 h
D.
1 day
20.
Which of the following is/are true about decay constant?
A.
I only
B.
II and III only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
II and IV only
E.
The process is considered a statistical event
I.
The number of atoms disintegrating per unit time is proportional to the number of radioactive atoms.
II.
The decay constant symbol is λ.
III.
It is inversely proportional to half-life (T 1/2).
IV.
It is the time required for the number of radioactive atoms to decay to half the initial value.
21.
Which of the following decay processes is due to a deficit of neutrons?
A.
Internal conversion
B.
Electron capture
C.
Alpha particles
D.
β–
22.
Which of the following decay processes is due to excess nuclear energy from the nucleus?
A.
Internal conversion
B.
Electron capture
C.
Alpha particles
D.
Beta minus
23.
Which of the following decay processes gives rise to emission of Auger electrons?
A.
I only
B.
II and III only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
II and IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Beta plus decay
II.
Internal conversion
III.
Electron capture
IV.
Beta minus decay
24.
Which of the following particles is composed of two protons and two neutrons?
A.
Hydrogen’s nucleus
B.
3He nucleus
C.
Alpha particle
D.
β– particle
25.
Radioactivity or rate of decay can be affected by:
A.
I only
B.
II and III only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
II and IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Atomic nucleus composition
II.
Pressure
III.
Temperature
IV.
Distance
26.
The process by which an atomic nucleus of unstable atom becomes more stable by emitting particles and/or electromagnetic radiation is called:
A.
Half-life
B.
Transmutation
C.
Radioactive decay
D.
Electron equilibrium
27.
Which of the following is considered beta decay?
A.
I only
B.
II and III only
C.
I, II, and III only
D.
II and IV only
E.
All answers are correct
I.
Helium emission
II.
Positron emission
III.
Electron capture
IV.
Gamma emission
28.
Which of the following particles is emitted on a beta plus (β+) decay process?
A.
Internal conversion
B.
An electron
C.
A positron
D.
An alpha particle
E.
A negatron
1.3 Production of X-Ray (Questions)
Quiz-1 (Level 2)
1.
Which of the following scientist discovered X-Ray?
A.
Henri Becquerel, 1896
B.
Marie and Pierre Curie, 1898
C.
Wilhelm Roentgen, 1895
D.
Albert Einstein, 1915–1916
2.
The X-ray tube consists of:
I.
A cathode
II.
An anode
III.
A glass envelope
IV.
A tissue compensator
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
3.
Which of the following statements is false?
A.
The anode is made of a tungsten target.
B.
The cathode is a tungsten filament.
C.
Electrons are accelerated toward the cathode.
D.
X-ray emerges through a thin glass beryllium window.
4.
The term thermionic emission refers to:
A.
The ratio of output energy emitted as X-rays to the input energy deposit by electrons
B.
The emission of electrons by the highly heated tungsten filament
C.
The region, at the edge of a radiation beam, over which the dose rate changes rapidly as a function of distance from the beam axis
D.
A neutral atom acquiring a positive or a negative charge
5.
Which of the following statements about anode target are correct?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
The anode target is made of tungsten.
II.
The anode material atomic number (Z) is 74.
III.
The target material must consist of a high atomic number and high melting point.
IV.
The target material must consist of a high atomic number and low melting point.
6.
The efficiency of X-ray production depends on what factor(s) of an anode:
A.
Mass number (A)
B.
The binding energy
C.
Atomic number (Z)
D.
Number of nucleons
7.
To dissipate the heat from the target
A.
The tungsten target is angled
B.
An added filtration outside the tube is used
C.
A cathode focusing cup is used
D.
A rotating anode is used as well as oil outside the glass envelope.
8.
From the following diagram, match all of the following parts of the X-ray tube.
A.
Anode
B.
Cathode
C.
Focusing cup
D.
Filament
E.
Glass window
F.
X-rays
G.
Electron cloud
H.
Tungsten target
I.
Glass envelope
Fig. 1.3.1
9.
Match all the X-ray tube parts with its corresponding function.
A.
Anode
B.
Cathode
C.
Focusing cup
D.
Filament
E.
Glass window
F.
X-rays
G.
Electron cloud
H.
Tungsten target
I.
Glass envelope
J.
Focal spot
I.
It is made of molybdenum; negative electrode; directs the electrons toward the anode so that they strike the target in a well-defined area.
II.
The anode and the cathode are inside; maintains a vacuum.
III.
Allow the X-rays to escape from the vacuum tube.
IV.
It is negative electrode; consists of a wire filament, a circuit to provide current, and a negatively charged focusing cup.
V.
It is made of tungsten, located inside the focusing cup, when heated it emits electrons.
VI.
It is a positive electrode; it is made of a tungsten target on a cylindrical copper base.
VII.
It is positively charged and made of tungsten; electrons are slowed down through a process called Bremsstrahlung; X-rays are produced.
VIII.
They are produced on the filament and travel from cathode to anode.
IX.
Are produced in the target and travel outside through the glass window.
X.
Area of the target where electrons collide and photons are emitted; it could be small or large.
10.
What focal spot is used in therapy machines?
A.
Small focal spot
B.
Triangular focal spot
C.
Stationary focal spot
D.
Large focal spot
11.
What is the target angle in a therapy machine?
A.
6–17°
B.
15–30°
C.
0.1–2 mm
D.
5–7 mm
12.
Calculate the apparent focal spot if the size of the focal spot (A) is 2.5 mm and the target angle is 20°.
A.
5 mm
B.
8.5 cm
C.
0.85 mm
D.
3 mm
13.
The function of the low-voltage circuit on an X-ray generator is?
A.
Supply heating current to the filament.
B.
Provide the accelerating potential for the electrons.
C.
Control the tube current.
D.
Provide a stepwise adjustment in voltage.
14.
Match the following with its corresponding characteristics.
A.
Self-rectified circuit
B.
Half-wave rectification
C.
Full-wave rectification
D.
Step-up transformer
E.
Step-down transformer
I.
N 1 > N 2, where N 1 is the number of turns on the primary transformer and N 2 is the number of turns on the secondary transformer.
II.
The current flows during both half-cycles.
III.
N 2 > N 1, where N 2 is the number of turns on the secondary transformer and N 1 is the number of turns on the primary transformer.
IV.
The tube current as well as the X-ray will be generated only during the half-cycle when the anode is positive.
V.
The current will flow as usual during the cycle when the anode is positive related to the cathode.
15.
What are the two mechanisms by which X-rays are produced?
A.
Coherent scattering and photoelectric effect
B.
Bremsstrahlung and characteristic
C.
Compton effect and pair production
D.
Annihilation radiation and photo disintegration
16.
Which of the following statements are/is true about Bremsstrahlung X-ray radiation?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Photons are produced during a sudden deflection and acceleration of the electron when passing near the nucleus.
II.
Results in either partial or complete loss of electron energy.
III.
The resulting photon may have any energy up to the initial energy of the electron but not higher.
IV.
The direction of emission of the photons depends on the energy of the incident electrons.
17.
Which type of target is used by megavoltage X-rays tube accelerators?
A.
Flattening filter
B.
Transmission-type targets
C.
Reflection targets
D.
Filtration
18.
The probability of Bremsstrahlung X-ray production fluctuates with:
A.
The 1st power of the atomic number
B.
Atomic mass2 (A 2) of the target material
C.
Atomic number2 (Z 2) of the target material
D.
Voltage applied to the tube
19.
Which of the following is the result of removing an orbital electron in the K, L, or M shell by a direct hit of an incoming electron?
A.
Photoelectric effect
B.
Characteristic X-rays
C.
Bremsstrahlung X-rays
D.
Compton effect
20.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about characteristic X-ray radiation?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
It is a product of a direct interaction of an incoming electron with an orbital electron.
II.
The orbital electron will move away from the collision with initial kinetic energy (E 0) minus the energy needed to eject the orbital electron (ΔE), E 0 − ΔE.
III.
A photon is produced when an outer orbital electron fills the vacancy created by the ejected orbital electron.
IV.
Characteristic X-rays are created at discrete energies.
21.
What is the energy of a photon emitted from the transition of an electron descending from the L shell with a binding energy of 1.100 KeV to the K shell with a binding energy of 8.980 KeV?
A.
8.163 keV
B.
7.880 keV
C.
10.08 keV
D.
9.878 keV
22.
Match the following schematic illustration with its corresponding name.
A.
Bremsstrahlung process
B.
Characteristic radiation
C.
Coherent scattering
D.
Pair production
Fig. 1.3.2
23.
The two types of filtration on an X-ray machine are:
A.
Added and flattening filter
B.
Added and magnetron
C.
Inherent and added
D.
Inherent and HVL
24.
Inherent filtration refers to:
A.
The absorption of the photons through a filter placed externally to the tube
B.
The absorption of the photons through the target, glass walls of the tube, or a thin beryllium window
C.
The placement of a flattening filter in the beam path
D.
Shielding against leakage radiation
25.
As filtration increases the X-ray beam has:
A.
Higher average energy and lower penetrating power
B.
Lower average energy and greater penetrating power
C.
Higher average energy and greater penetrating power
D.
Lower average energy and lower penetrating power
26.
If additional penetration power of the beam is needed:
A.
Added filtration and/or decreased voltage across the tube can be used.
B.
Added filtration and/or increased voltage across the tube can be used.
C.
Inherent filtration and/or decreased kVp across the tube can be used.
D.
Inherent filtration and/or increased mAs can be used.
27.
Which of the following factors can affect the X-ray emission spectrum?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
kVp only
II.
Distance and kVp only
III.
kVp and mAs only
IV.
Filtration and kVp only
28.
The formula to approximate the mean or average energy of the photon is:
A.
E = hν
B.
E avg = 1/5 E max
C.
E avg = 0.5/E max
D.
E avg = 1/3 E max
29.
What is the maximum and mean energy of a Bremsstrahlung photon spectrum that was generated using 110 kVp?
A.
Max of 110 kV and mean of 3.66 kV
B.
Max of 110 kV and mean of 36.66 kV
C.
Max of 55 kV and mean of 0.003 kV
D.
Max of 110 V and mean of 36.66 V
30.
What is exposure?
A.
The transmission of radiation through the edges of the collimator blocks
B.
Used to bent the electron beam 90° or 270° from its original direction
C.
Measure of ionization produce per unit mass on air
D.
The energy absorbed in a material per unit mass
31.
Which of the following materials is used to insulate an X-ray tube?
A.
Water
B.
Oil
C.
Gas
D.
Lead
32.
Which of the following parts of the X-ray tube contains the filament and focusing cup?
A.
The anode
B.
The cathode
C.
The transformer
D.
The rectifier
33.
Which of the formulas is used to determine the heat unit of an X-ray machine?
A.
mA × kVp
B.
mA × kVp/time
C.
mA × kVp × time
D.
kVp × time/mA
34.
Which of the following determine the wavelength or energy of an X-ray?
A.
Kilovoltage potential (kVp)
B.
Milliamperage (mA)
C.
Distance
D.
Time
35.
Which of the following is/are properties of X-rays?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
X-rays are unaffected by gravity.
II.
X-rays are unaffected by electric fields.
III.
X-rays are unaffected by magnetic fields.
IV.
X-rays cannot be focused.
36.
How are X-rays produced?
A.
By radioactive decay
B.
By interaction of electrons with matter
C.
By bombarding a proton into a nucleus
D.
By interaction of a neutron with matter
37.
An elastic collision is said to be
A.
When momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
B.
When momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
C.
When momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved
D.
When momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
38.
The direction in which the X-ray beam is emitted from the target depends on:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
The target design
II.
The number of electrons striking the target
III.
The energy of the incoming electrons
IV.
The target focal spot size
39.
Which of the following must be present in order for X-ray production to occur?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
High-speed electrons
II.
A large potential difference
III.
A vacuum tube
IV.
A means of electrons deceleration
40.
The function(s) of the X-ray anode is/are:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Converts electronic energy into x-radiation
II.
Serves as the target surface for the high-voltage electrons
III.
Serves as the primary thermal conductor
IV.
Serves as electron source
41.
The function(s) of the X-ray housing is/are:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Absorbs scatter and leakage radiation
II.
Dissipates most of the heat created within the tube
III.
Isolates the high voltages
IV.
Provides electrical insulation
1.4 Interaction of Radiation with Matter (Questions)
Quiz-1 (Level 2)
1.
The process by which a neutral atom acquires a positive or a negative charge is known as:
A.
Excitation
B.
Ionization
C.
LET
D.
Bragg peak
2.
Which of the following particles is/are directly ionizing?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Electrons
II.
Proton
III.
Alpha particles
IV.
Neutrons
3.
Photons interact with the atoms of a material to produce high-speed electrons by which major processes?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Photoelectric effect
II.
Compton effect
III.
Pair production
IV.
Characteristic X-ray production
4.
The thickness of an absorber required to attenuate the intensity of the beam to half its original value is the:
A.
Energy absorption coefficient
B.
Energy transfer coefficient
C.
Attenuation coefficient
D.
Half-value layer (HVL)
5.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
For a heterogeneous beam, the first HVL is less than the subsequent HVLs.
II.
As the filter thickness increases, the average energy of the transmitted beam increases.
III.
As the filter thickness increases, the beam becomes increasingly harder.
IV.
By increasing filtration of heterogeneous beam, penetration power or half-value layer of the beam increases.
6.
Which of the following is the formula of HVL?
A.
HVL = 0.693/μ
B.
HVL = 0.693 × μ
C.
HVL = 0.693/T 1/2
D.
HVL = 0.693/λ
7.
Which of the following factors affect the amount of photon attenuation by a material?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Thickness or nature of the material in question
II.
The energy of the photon
III.
Linear attenuation coefficient (μ) of the material
IV.
Density of the material in question
8.
The main type(s) of interaction involving attenuation of a photon beam by an absorbing material is/are:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Coherent scattering and pair production
II.
Bremsstrahlung and characteristic X-ray
III.
Compton and photoelectric effect
IV.
Half-value layer
9.
In Coherent scattering:
A.
The new photons have the same energy as the incoming photons, but are scattered in different directions.
B.
The new photons have the more energy than the incoming photons, but are scattered in different directions.
C.
The new photons have the same energy as the incoming photons, and are scattered in the same direction.
D.
The new photons have the less energy as the incoming photons, but are scattered in different directions.
10.
The probability of coherent scattering is increased by:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Low atomic number materials
II.
High atomic number materials
III.
High-energy photons
IV.
Low-energy photons
11.
The following are characteristics of the photoelectric effect:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
An incoming photon is totally absorbed by an inner shell electron.
II.
An atom is ionized when an electron is ejected from an orbital leaving a vacancy.
III.
An electron from outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell producing a characteristic X-ray.
IV.
The characteristic photon can be ejecting another electron called an Auger electron.
12.
The main interaction responsible for diagnostic imaging is:
A.
Coherent scattering
B.
Compton effect
C.
Photoelectric effect
D.
Pair production
13.
The probability of a photoelectric interaction depends on:
A.
Atomic number (Z) and energy of the photon (E); the higher the Z of the material, the more likely the interaction, but the higher the energy of the photon, the less likely the interaction.
B.
Atomic number (Z) and energy of the photon (E); the lower the Z of the material, the more likely the interaction, but the higher the energy of the photon, the less likely the interaction.
C.
Atomic number (Z) and energy of the photon (E); the higher the Z of the material, the more likely the interaction, and the lower the energy of the photon, the less likely the interaction.
D.
Atomic number (Z) and energy of the photon (E); the lower the Z of the material, the more likely the interaction, and the lower the energy of the photon, the less likely the interaction.
14.
In which of the following types of interactions does a photon interact with an atomic electron as if it were a free electron?
A.
Coherent scatter
B.
Photoelectric effect
C.
Compton effect
D.
Pair production
15.
Compton interaction depends on:
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Atomic number (Z) of the material
II.
Number of electrons per gram
III.
Atomic mass (A) of the material
IV.
Energy of the incident photon
16.
Which of the following materials will attenuate more of an incoming photon beam in Compton interactions?
A.
Bone
B.
Soft tissue
C.
Hydrogen
D.
Water
17.
For pair production to take place, the threshold energy of the incident photon must be:
A.
Equal to 0.51 MeV
B.
Greater than 1.02 MeV
C.
Greater than 2.04 MeV
D.
Less than 1.02 MeV
18.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about pair production?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Incident photon energy must be greater than 1.02 MeV.
II.
Photons interact with atom.
III.
Photons give up all their energy in the process.
IV.
An electron and a positron are created.
19.
If a photon undergoes a Compton scattering event with an orbital electron by direct hit:
A.
No energy is transferred to the electron.
B.
The electron will receive maximum energy and the scattered photon will leave with the minimum energy.
C.
A photon with energy of 0.511 MeV will be created.
D.
This interaction is only possible with incoming photons of energy up to 50 keV.
20.
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A.
I, II, and III only
B.
I and III only
C.
II and IV only
D.
IV only
E.
All are correct
I.
Coherent scattering probability increases with high atomic number (Z) materials and with photons of low energy.
II.
Photoelectric effect probability increases with high atomic number (Z 3) materials and with lower-energy photons (E −3)
III.
Compton scattering probability also increases with decreasing energy (E −1), and it depends on the number of electrons per gram of material and is independent of Z.
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